We who preach the gospel must not think of ourselves as public relations agents sent to establish good will between Christ and the world. We must not imagine ourselves commissioned to make Christ acceptable to big business, the press, the world of sports or modern education. We are not diplomats but prophets, and our message is not a compromise but an ultimatum. A.W. Tozer
Therefore let God-inspired Scripture decide between us; and on whichever side be found doctrines in harmony with the word of God, in favor of that side will be cast the vote of truth. --Basil of Caesarea
Once you learn to discern, there's no going back. You will begin to spot the lie everywhere it appears.

I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who has strengthened me, because He considered me faithful, putting me into service. 1 Timothy 1:12

Wednesday, October 15, 2014

Good Question!

If sinlessness is claimed for the mother of the Lord Jesus Christ so she could be pure enough to bear the Savior, should it also be claimed for Mary’s mother so she could be pure enough to bear Mary?  Where does the process stop?  The Bible stops it by claiming sinlessness only for the Lord Jesus Christ.

Dr. Harold J. Berry, What They Believe, p.188

Roman Catholics, Eastern Orthodox Catholics — can you answer that?  Where does the process stop?


ali said...

There are none so blind as those that will not see.

Deception, false religions, false teachers, will continue to erode the church, UNTIL His people say "enough is enough." As long as the majority swallow and follow pulpit pimps these teachings will flourish - and sadly not just in the RCC.

Jon Gleason said...

Hi, Glenn. They say that it stops with Mary's conception.

A lot of people think the "Immaculate Conception" is a reference to Christ's conception. It isn't. It is a reference to Mary's conception. Of course, it is completely a human invention, the Scriptures tell us nothing about Mary being sinless or having an "Immaculate Conception."

So anyway, that is how far back it goes, to Mary's conception. Why? Because they say so. It isn't in Scripture, it isn't even in early Catholic dogma. It became dogma in 1854.

Another chapter in Roman Catholic idolatry and nonsense.

Glenn E. Chatfield said...

Hi Jon,

But it is still a good question. Because they say so? Why? My question is the same - why does Mary have to be immaculately conceived but her mother didn't? I want them to answer that with more than "because we say so." They can't. And that PROVES they lie about Mary, too.

Anonymous said...

Great quote Glen,

I recently learned from my college aged son whose roommate is a devout catholic, whom we love dearly. So very thankful for a roommate who doesn't drink alcohol at college as our children do not want to go down that road.....

Anyway, the roommate signed up for one hour of "Adoration" at the college catholic center so he could be with Jesus...so I asked "what is adoration?" I learned that adoration is where the individual basically baby sits the wine and the bread which they believe is the literal blood and flesh of Jesus.

This is utter blasphemy as far as I am concerned.

Glenn E. Chatfield said...


That's funny! I've never heard of that before.