What I want to address here is the idea of Mary’s “immaculate conception,” the idea that she was conceived without a sin nature which the rest of us have. This was necessary, so the argument goes, in order to give birth to Jesus without passing a sin nature.
My first question is, how could Mary need to be sinless to prevent the sinful nature from being passed to Jesus if her mother wasn’t sinless!?! Then for her mother to be born sinless her grandmother would also need to be sinless, ad nauseam through the genealogical line! This demonstrates the illogical nonsense to bring about an “immaculate conception.”
So now we get to the idea of how Mary could give birth to a person with no sin nature unless she had no sin nature.
The Bible says that “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.”
Now this would mean that Joseph could not provide the sperm from the male side because Mary was to be a virgin, and his sperm would carry the sin nature of mankind. However, what I’ve never seen a discussion about is if Mary’s egg was used, wouldn’t that also pass down the sinful nature?? Common sense tells me that what the Holy Spirit provided was a God-created fertilized egg for Mary to carry to birth! Only in that way would there be nothing of Adam’s sin to pass down to Jesus.
If God can create a man (Adam) who had no sin nature, why can he not create a fertilized egg in Mary’s womb in order for Jesus to grow from embryo to fetus to baby?
